(c) Explanation: • The Constitution of India in the Fundamental Rights (FR) and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) prohibits child labour under: • Article 24 (FR): No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or employed in any hazardous employment. • Article 21A (FR) provides free and compulsory education for the age group of 6 to 14 years. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, linked the age of employment for children to the age of compulsory education. • Under Article 39 (e) (DPSP), the State shall direct its policy towards securing the health and strength of workers, men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter vocations unsuited to their age or strength. • Article 39(f) (DPSP) provides children the right to equal opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity and guaranteed protection of childhood and youth against exploitation and against moral and material abandonment. So, statement 1 is correct. • The Central Government had enacted a new law — Child labour (Prohibition and Prevention) Amendment Act, 2016 – banning employment of child labour below 14 years of age in all occupations and processes. It further prohibits employment of adolescents (14-18 years of age) in hazardous occupations. So, statement 2 is not correct. • India has ratified the two Core Conventions of International Labour Organization (ILO), Convention 138 regarding ‘admission age to employment’ and Convention 182 regarding ‘worst forms of Child Labour’. So, statement 3 is correct.

(d) Explanation: • Funds are devolved to Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) mainly through transfer by the Central and State Government in the form of grants. • The property tax on land and buildings is the mainstay of ULB’s own revenue. The non-tax revenue of ULBs comprises water charges, rent from commercial establishments, trade licenses, fee for sanction of plans / mutations, etc. The State laws revealed that while the authority to collect certain taxes like property tax, advertisement tax vested with ULBs, powers pertaining to the rates and revision thereof (advertisement tax), procedure of collection (property tax), method of assessment, exemptions, concessions (property tax, advertisement tax) etc., were vested with the State Government. Following are the sources of funds for ULBs- • Tax and non-tax revenue like fees, charges • Grants-in-aid from the state and central government • Borrowings from financial institutions and Market • Property and profession Tax • Article 280(3) (C) of the Constitution mandates the Central Finance Commission (CFC) to recommend measures to augment the consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resource of Municipalities based on the recommendations of the respective SFCs. • Fiscal transfers from the Government formed the major portion of the revenue (averaging 63 per cent) of ULBs in the State during the period 2014-15 to 2018-19.

(b) Explanation: • The Right to be Forgotten falls under the purview of an individual’s Right to Privacy. Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right by the Supreme Court which said that “the right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution”. So, statement 1 is not correct. • It allows a person to seek deletion of private information from the Internet. The concept has found recognition in some jurisdictions abroad, particularly the European Union. So, statement 2 is correct. • While the right is not recognised by law in India, courts in recent months have held it to be an intrinsic part of the right to privacy. At least eight petitions are pending before Delhi High Court seeking removal of private information from the Internet, court records of previous convictions and proceedings, and news reports of past events. • The Right to be Forgotten falls under the purview of an individual’s right to privacy, which is governed by the Personal Data Protection Bill that is yet to be passed by Parliament. It is a legal principle that is not yet backed by statute in India. (Information Technology Act, 2000 provides for safeguard against breaches for personal information or data from computer systems however does not provide for Right to be Forgotten). So, statement 3 is not correct.

(a) Explanation: • National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) is an apex organization of the cooperative movement in India with a focus on cooperative education and training. So, statement 1 is correct. o NCUI was established in 1929 as All India Co-operative Institutes Association and was re-named National Co-operative Union of India in 1961. o Its objectives are to promote and develop the co-operative movement in India; to educate, guide and assist the people in their efforts; to build up and expand the co-operative sector; and service as an exponent of co-operative opinion in accordance with co-operative principles. o NCUI membership is open to national and state level co-operative organisations as well as multi-state co-operative societies. • Cooperatives celebrated the 100th International Day of Cooperatives (CoopsDay) on July 2 across the globe. The theme of 100th International Cooperative Day is ‘Cooperatives Build a Better World’. The Ministry of Cooperation and NCUI are organizing the event with the theme ‘Cooperatives Build an Atmanirbhar Bharat and Better World.’ So, statement 3 is not correct. • The short-term co-operative credit structure operates with a three-tier system – Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village level, Central Cooperative Banks (CCBs) at the district level and State Cooperative Banks (StCBs) at the State level. So, statement 2 is correct.

(b) Explanation: • As per the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission of India (ECI) allots symbols to political parties contesting in polls. So, statement 1 is correct. • In the case of a recognised political party, the Commission allows it to ‘reserve’ a symbol. An independent candidate or someone contesting on behalf of an unrecognized political party has to approach the Commission and get a symbol allotted from the list of ‘free’ symbols available. Any choice other than from the EC’s list is summarily rejected. So, statement 2 is not correct. • In case a recognised political party splits, the Election Commission decides which faction can use the symbol. The Election Symbols Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognise political parties and allot symbols. Under the Order, it can decide disputes among rival groups staking claim to its name and symbol. The EC is the only authority to decide issues on a dispute or a merger. The Supreme Court upheld its validity in Sadiq Ali and another vs. ECI in 1971. So, statement 3 is not correct. • Two or more recognised political parties can have the same symbol provided they are not contenders in the same State or Union Territory. Example: Both the Federal Party of Manipur and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) use ‘Rising Sun’ as their symbol. But if one of the parties wishes to open their account in the other State, it will have to contest on a different symbol. So, statement 4 is correct.

(d) Explanation: • The United Nations (UN) in a historic resolution has declared that every person on the planet has the right to live in a clean, healthy environment. This right was not included in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), 1948. The declaration adopted by over 160 UN member nations, including India, is not legally binding. There are 30 Articles of rights under UDHR, which includes: o Article 3: Right to life, liberty and security of person. So, point 1 is correct. o Article 17: Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. So, point 2 is correct. o Article 20: Everyone has the right to freedom of peaceful assembly and association. So, point 3 is correct. o Article 13: Everyone has the right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of each state. Everyone has the right to leave any country, including his own, and to return to his country. So, point 4 is correct. o Article 8: Everyone has the right to an effective remedy by the competent national tribunals for acts violating the fundamental rights granted him by the constitution or by law. So, point 5 is correct.

(b) Explanation: • On January 26, 1950, the Lion Capital of Sarnath officially adopted by the Government of India as the national emblem of India. However, the bell-shaped lotus from the Sarnath pillar was omitted from the emblem. The emblem represents the seal of the Republic of India. So, statement 1 is not correct. • The Sarnath pillar (Sarnath Lion Capital) was built during the reign of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka. So, statement 2 is correct. • It was felt that the pillar epitomized the power, courage and confidence of the free nation. Four Asiatic lions are part of the national emblem with three lions being visible to the naked eye and the fourth one always hidden from general view. They are taken from the Sarnath Lion Capital. Built-in 250 BC to commemorate the first sermon of Gautama Buddha, where he is said to have shared the Four Noble Truths. It was mounted on a base of a frieze of smaller sculptures, including a horse, a lion, a bull and an elephant moving in a clockwise direction. The four animals are said to be guardians of the four directions — north, south, east and west. They are separated by a wheel, representing the Dharmachakra of Buddhism, on all four sides. Each chakra or wheel has 24 spokes. The chakra was later adopted as part of the National Flag. So, statement 3 is correct. • The emblem depicts a two-dimensional sculpture with the words Satyameva Jayate (truth alone triumphs) written below it, taken from the Mundaka Upanishad, written in Devanagari script. So, statement 4 is not correct. • Five students of renowned artist Nandalal Bose created the emblem.

(b) Explanation: • It is the role and duty of the Presiding Officer — Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairperson of Rajya Sabha — to maintain order. Thus, to ensure that proceedings are conducted in the proper manner, the Speaker/ Chairman is empowered to force a member to withdraw from the House. • A member of Lok Sabha can be suspended from the house maximum for the remainder of the session only. The Speaker can name a member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by wilfully obstructing business. If a member is so named by the Speaker, he will be suspended from the service of the House for a period not exceeding the remainder of the session. So, statement 1 is correct. • It is the Rajya Sabha that cannot suspend its members without passing a motion for the same. In Lok Sabha, Rule 374A provides that in the event of grave disorder occasioned by a Member, such Member shall, on being named by the Speaker, stand automatically suspended from the service of the House. So, statement 2 is not correct.

(a) Explanation: • Varahagiri Venkata Giri (1969 to 1974) served as the 4th President of India. In 1967, he was also elected as the Vice President of India. • Giani Zail Singh (1982 to 1987) was an Indian politician who was the first Sikh to serve as the President of India. Important events during his tenure include Operation Bluestar and the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. • R. Venkataraman (1987 to 1992) was involved in India’s independence struggle and was consequently jailed. After his release he continued to practice law and helped draft India’s Constitution. After serving as Vice President of India in 1984–87, he was elected to the post of President of India in 1987. • Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma (1992 to 1997) was appointed as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, and Maharashtra before becoming the Vice President of India in 1987 and then the President of India in 1992.

(c) Explanation: • The Constitution is a set of basic principles and laws of a nation, state, or social group that determine the powers and duties of the government and guarantee certain rights to the people in it. It performs the following functions – o A Constitution provides a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of society. o A Constitution sets some limits on what a Government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass on them. o A Constitution provides people the ‘’Right to Choice”. It enables people to choose their representatives through free and fair elections. However, this does not always ensure that only people with high moral standards are elected to public offices. Ultimately, elections are a game of numbers, and only those who have the majority of votes get elected. o One of the functions of a Constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the Government will be constituted. A constitution enables the government to fulfil the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society.