Q 1 . Consider the following statements:
1 . The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2 . The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Constitution of India does not define the term ‘basic structure’. It is a judicial tool that was invented by the Supreme Court of India in the Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) landmark judgment. Even though, the Supreme Court invented the concept of Basic Structure in the aforementioned judgment, it did not define the same. However, it is only in the later judgments that the court has added various elements to the list of the basic structure of the Constitution. • Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals with the concept of Judicial Review however, it does not explicitly mentions the term judicial review.
Q 2 . One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
(a) The final goal of a stateless society
(b) Class struggle
(c) Abolition of private property
(d) Economic determinism
(a) Stateless Society: A society which lacks formal institutions of government. Gandhiji is a philosophical anarchist. Anarchist is one who is opposed to every type of state; Gandhian Ramrajya is that it is a self-regulating system where everyone is one’s own ruler. Marxism revolves around a classless and stateless society. Karl Marx had predicted that the proletariats (working class people especially those who do not own any property) will take control of the state and production process, they will destroy all class differences and class antagonisms, and finally resulting in the ‘withering Away of the State’. Thus, the end result will be a stateless society. Thus, we can infer that both Gandhi & Marx aimed for Stateless society.
Q 3 . The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
(d) A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law. Berubari Vs Union (1960): Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution. Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) : Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution. The combined effect of the 3 judgments has been that even though the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, but it is not enforceable in a court of law. However, the Preamble helps in ascertaining the vision of the Constitution and hence, independently, it is non-justiciable.
Q 4 . With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1 . They shall be enforceable by courts
2 . They shall not be enforceable by any court
3 . The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy (Article 36 to Article 51) Article 37: Provisions of Part-IV shall not be enforceable by any court . Article 37 of the Indian Constitution also states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Q 5 . Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1 . Preamble
2 . Directive Principles of State Policy
3 . Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Preamble to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about dignity of an individual. Preamble of Indian Constitution speaks about “Equality of status and of opportunity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity” . Article 23 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about the Right to Work. Similar concept in Article 41 of the Indian Constitution, under the head of DPSPs. Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about duties. A similar concept that was inserted in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under Part IV-A of the Constitution (Article 51A).
Q 6 . Consider the following statements:
1 . In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of
the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2 . According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s
post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) India has first past the post system wherein a candidate who wins the election may not (need to) get majority (50%+1) votes. Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party.Meaning it’s an ‘informal consensus’ among political parties, and not Constitutional provision.
Q 7 . Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right
(c) Right to vote in elections is an important constitutional right. One of the important decisions of the framers of Indian Constitution was to guarantee every adult citizen in India, the right to vote. [Article 326]
Q 8 . Consider the following statements:
1 . The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2 . Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections
and by-elections.
3 . Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
(d) Election Commission has three election Commissioners. Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Q 9 . Consider the following statements :
1 . In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2 . In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognized for the first time in 1969.
3 . In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only Congress party won 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha . The Communist Party of India that came next in terms of seats won only 16 seats. It was Ram Subhag Singh- who became the first leader of opposition in Lok Sabha in 1969. In each House of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition’. The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognized as the leader of the Opposition in that House. Maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 so minimum 10% is 55 .
Q 10 . With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, et(c) conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
(b) Committee on government assurances- checks the assurances, promises and undertakings given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through. In the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. It was constituted in 1953. Committee on Subordinate legislation examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953. Rules committee considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends necessary amendments or additions to the rules of the House. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members including the Speaker as its ex-officio chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 16 members including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman · Business advisory committee regulates the programme and time table of the House. It allocates time for the transaction of legislative and other business brought before the House by the government. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members including the Speaker as its chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it has 11 members including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman.