Q 1 . In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
(d) Historically speaking, the term liberty was initially defined as absence of all restraints on an individual. This is known as the negative concept of liberty. Early liberalism championed negative liberty. John Stuart Mill, the nineteenth century English political philosopher, described, “Restraint as an evil”. So, (d) is appropriate.
Q 2 . In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
(a) An agency widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
(d) Bureaucrats are appointed by the President / Governor of India for implementing the policies of the government of the day.
Q 3 . Consider the following statements:
1 . According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of that state.
2 . According to the Representation of People Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) A citizen becomes eligible to vote upon attaining the age of 18. Whereas a person to become a member must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. As per the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. There is no clause of “permanent disqualification” in the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect.
Q 4 . Consider the following statements:
1 . The president of India can summon a session of Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2 . The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
3 . There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(c) Article 85 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to summon each house of the Parliament at such time and place as he thinks fit. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The Constitution of India does not mention anything about the number of Parliamentary sessions in a year. Hence, 2nd statement is incorrect. Exact number of days for which the Parliament is supposed to meet in a year is not mentioned in the Constitution and hence, 3rd statement is correct.
Q 5 . Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in
(a) The matter of creating new all India services
(b) Amending the Constitution
(c) The removal of the government
(d) Making cut motions
(b) Article 312: With regards to the creation of All India Services, Rajya Sabha has special powers such that if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting, Parliament may, by law, create one or more All India Services in national interest. So (a) is wrong. Article 75(3) hold the government collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, in this regards, Lok Sabha has greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha. So (c) is wrong. Cut Motions, which are meant to reduce the amount allocated to the ministries in the demand for grants, can be made only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations with regards to the cut motion. So (d) is wrong. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either house of the Parliament and both the houses have equal powers in respect to the Constitutional Amendment Bill. So (b) is right.
Q 6 . A constitutional government by definition is a
(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) Multi party government
(d) Limited government
(d) In India, the constitutional government is a limited government. The powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part-III of the Indian Constitution, that are essentially given to us against the state actions.
Q 7 . Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
(b) “The right to marry a person of one’s choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution” – SC Judgement on Hadiya Case.
Q 8 . Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) Right to equality
(d) Following fundamental rights are related to “Equality”: • Article 14 – Equality before law • Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth • Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment • Article 17 – Abolition of untouchability • Article 18 – Abolition of titles
Q 9 . In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1 . Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
2 . Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
3 . Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
4 . All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
(a) As per the official website of NALSA: senior citizens eligible depending on income. So, statement 4 ALL senior citizens eligible is wrong. As per the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987 There is no provision of free legal aid for OBCs. So statement 3 is wrong. Thus correct statements are 1 and 2 only.
Q 10 . In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
(a) The Preamble of the Constitution
(b) A Directive Principle of state policy
(c) The Seventh schedule
(d) The conventional practice
(b) Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deal with Directive Principles of the State Policy. Within that Article 50 deals prescribes Separation of judiciary from executive
